Hi friends, here is the Solved Paper of IPO Exam 2019: Paper 3. In previous set, we have discussed first 15 Questions of Inspector Posts Exam 2019 paper 3. Today, we will be discussing the next set of 15 questions. Those preparing for IPO Exam 2021 will find these questions very useful. This gives an insight on the pattern and difficulty level of questions.
Attempt the questions and check your score. As previous questions are key to success, study these questions carefully.
Solved Paper of IPO Exam 2019: Paper 3
1. The provisions related to the Panchayats have been described in which Article of the Constitution?
(a) Article 191
(b) Article 182
(c) Article 243
(d) Article 242
Ans: (c) Article 243
2. Election Commission of India is constituted under which Article of Constitution?
(a) Article 391
(b) Article 252
(c) Article 355
(d) Article 324
Ans: (d) Article 324
3. Which authority has power to amend the Constitution of India?
(a) The Parliament
(b) The President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Speaker of LokSabha
Ans: (a) The Parliament
4. “Foreign judgement” has been defined in which Section of Code of Civil Procedure?
(a) Section 2 (6)
(b) Section 1 (1)
(c) Section 2 (5)
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Section 2 (6)
5. Read the following statements about Code of Civil Procedure and indicate which of (a), (b), (c), (d) is true?
(1) “Legal representatives” means a person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person.
(2) “Legal representatives” includes any person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased.
(a) Only statement (1) is correct
(b) Only statement (2) is correct
(c) Both statements (1) and (2) are correct
(d) Neither (1) nor (2) is correct.
Ans: (c) Both statements (1) and (2) are correct
6. “Cognizable offence” has been defined in which Section of Code of Crominal Procedure?
(a) Section 2(c)
(b) Section 2(d)
(c) Section 13
(d) Section 1
Ans: (a) Section 2(c)
7. Provision related to “Attachment of Property of person absconding” contained in which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure?
(a) Section 129
(b) Section 182
(c) Section 83
(d) Section 193
Ans: (c) Section 83
8. Provision related to “Of the Relevancy of Facts” is contained in:-
(a) Chapter I of Part I of the Indian Evidence Act
(b) Chapter II of Part I of the Indian Evidence Act
(c) Chapter IV of Part I the Indian Evidence Act
(d) None of the above.
Ans: (b) Chapter II of Part I of the Indian Evidence Act
9. Which of the following statement is correct in context of the Indian Evidence Act?
(1) No fact of which the Court will take judicial notice need to be proved
(2) Any fact of which the Court will take judicial notice must be proved
(a) (1) is correct but (2) is not correct
(b) (2) is correct but (1) is not correct
(c) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(d) Neither (1) nor (2) is correct
Ans: (a) (1) is correct but (2) is not correct
10. Consider the following documents and indicate which is/are the Public Documents within the meaning of the Indian Evidence Act?
(1) Documents of the sovereign authority
(2) Documents of official bodies and tribunals
(3) Documents of public officers, legislative, judicial and executive
(a) (1) only is the public document and (2) and (3) or not
(b) (1) and (2) only are the public document (3) is not
(c) (1) and (3) only are the public document and (2) is not
(d) (1) (2) and (3) all are the public documents
Ans: (d) (1) (2) and (3) all are the public documents
11. Punishments under the Indian Penal Code are described in:
(a) Section 1 of the Indian Penal Code
(b) Section 4 of the Indian Penal Code
(c) Section 53 the of Indian Penal Code
(d) Section 2 of the Indian Penal Code
Ans: (c) Section 53 the of Indian Penal Code
12. “Breach of contract to attend on and supply wants of helpless person is an offence” under which section of the Indian penal code?
(a) Section 491
(b) Section 420
(c) Section 435
(d) Section 21
Ans: (a) Section 491
13. As per latest instruction On APAR, who is the custodian of APAR of IP /ASP/PS Group B officers in Department of Posts?
(a) DPS(HQ) of concerned Circle
(b) Postal Directorate
(c) Ministry of Communication Office New Delhi
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) DPS(HQ) of concerned Circle
14. Which of the correct Statement with respect to Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985?
(a) it applies to the members of armed force
(b) It applies to the Officers and servants of Supreme Court
(c) It applies to the officers and servants of High Court
(d) It does not apply to any category of persons mentioned in (a), (b) and (c)
Ans: (d) It does not apply to any category of persons mentioned in (a), (b) and (c)
15. What is the retirement age of the Chairman of Principal Bench of Central Administrative Tribunal?
(a) 70 years
(b) 68 years
(c) 63 years
(d) 55 years
Ans: (b) 68 years
Useful MCQ Questions link
- MCQ Series on Postal Manual Volume II
- MCQ Series on Postal Manual Volume III
- MCQ Series on Postal Manual Volume IV
- MCQ Series on Postal Manual Volume V
- MCQ Series on Postal Manual Volume VI
- MCQ Series on Postal Manual Volume VII
- MCQ Quiz on POLI Rules 2011
- MCQ Quiz on Post Office Savings Scheme
- MCQ Quiz on RTI Act 2005
- Children Education Allowance (CEA) Quiz
- MCQ on GDS (Conduct & Engagement) Rules, 2020
- MCQ on MNOP Project
- MCQ on India Post Annual Report